To what extent does Shakespeare present Macbeth himself as responsible for his decline from loyal subject to regicide? What other factors does Shakespeare make responsible for his apparent decline?
We first hear about Macbeth in Act one scene 2 when the Captain mentions him. He presents Macbeth as a brave and courageous soldier.
“But all’s to weak-
For brave Macbeth [well he deserves that name]
Disdaining fortune, with his brandished sheet
This smoked the bloody execution”.
The Captain then does on to describe how Macbeth showed no fear when the Norwegians turned up.
“But the Norwegian lord, surveying vantage,
With furbished arms, and new supplies of men,
Began a fresh assault,”
Ross then explains that Macbeth didn’t only defeat the Norwegians but captured the Thane of Cawdor.
“Norway himself, with terrible numbers,
Assisted by that most disloyal traitor,
The Thane of Cawdor, began a dismal conflict-
Till that Bellona’s bridegroom, lapped in proof,
Confronted him with self-comparisons,
Point against point, rebellious arm ’gainst arm,
Curbing his lavish spirit. And, to conclude,
The victory fell on us-”
The disloyal traitor was assisted by the Norwegians, but did not succeed in the battle. But failed as they were no match for Macbeth. Duncan was impressed by this and he says;
“No more that Thane of Cawdor shall deceive
Our bosom interest!- Go, pronounce his present death,
And with his former title greet Macbeth.”
Macbeth captured the Thane of Cawdor for the king. And in the kings gratitude he makes Macbeth the new Thane of ...